(Spanish) Why and how is *Le* used in this sentence (8). And are there resources to practice examples like that ?

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Re: (Spanish) Why and how is *Le* used in this sentence (8). And are there resources to practice examples like that ?

Postby Jaleel10 » Wed Feb 07, 2018 7:34 am

James29 wrote:Any chance you could post more of the dialogue and the translation in Assimil? I'd like to see more of the context of this example.


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Re: (Spanish) Why and how is *Le* used in this sentence (8). And are there resources to practice examples like that ?

Postby eido » Mon Feb 12, 2018 2:17 am

I'm still not understanding the explanation given for the original question. I know I'm not OP but I was confused like he was. If anyone's willing to give further explication and bang it into my head, that'd be appreciated.

Is it in any way similar to sentences like this?

Lo tiene el coche.

Why do they say the subject after they've indicated it with 'lo'?

tastyonions wrote:On the subject of potentially confusing things about "le," one final note is that "le" and "les" both change to "se" when they precede a direct object pronoun.

Se lo dijiste a tus hermanos.
You said it to your brothers.

"Se" is standing in for "les."


Why is 'se' used here? I'm using my English brain to puzzle through this, and it seems redundant if I think about the literal equivalent in my language. Like, does it mean, "It was said by you to your brothers"?

Thank to you anyone who helps. Sorry for jacking your thread, Jaleel10.
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Re: (Spanish) Why and how is *Le* used in this sentence (8). And are there resources to practice examples like that ?

Postby tastyonions » Mon Feb 12, 2018 2:51 am

eido wrote:
tastyonions wrote:On the subject of potentially confusing things about "le," one final note is that "le" and "les" both change to "se" when they precede a direct object pronoun.

Se lo dijiste a tus hermanos.
You said it to your brothers.

"Se" is standing in for "les."


Why is 'se' used here? I'm using my English brain to puzzle through this, and it seems redundant if I think about the literal equivalent in my language. Like, does it mean, "It was said by you to your brothers"?.

No, “se” replaces “les” simply for reasons of euphony (to avoid things like “les lo” or “le la”). It’s neither reflexive nor passive here. It has the exact same function as “les” would in a sentence like “Él les contó la leyenda de Darth Plagueis el sabio.”
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Re: (Spanish) Why and how is *Le* used in this sentence (8). And are there resources to practice examples like that ?

Postby eido » Mon Feb 12, 2018 3:50 am

tastyonions wrote:No, “se” replaces “les” simply for reasons of euphony (to avoid things like “les lo” or “le la”). It’s neither reflexive nor passive here. It has the exact same function as “les” would in a sentence like “Él les contó la leyenda de Darth Plagueis el sabio.”

Oh goodness, I knew this. I think I just had a brainfart. The sentence you wrote before, "les" means "to them". Ugh. I'm sorry you had to witness my stupidity. But thank you for being so kind.
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Re: (Spanish) Why and how is *Le* used in this sentence (8). And are there resources to practice examples like that ?

Postby smallwhite » Mon Feb 12, 2018 4:48 am

eido wrote:Is it in any way similar to sentences like this?
Lo tiene el coche.


No.

I change engine
Cambio motor
Cambio el motor.

I change car's engine
I change engine for car
Cambio motor a coche
Cambio el motor al coche.

I change its engine
I change engine for it
Cambio motor le
Le cambio el motor.
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Re: (Spanish) Why and how is *Le* used in this sentence (8). And are there resources to practice examples like that ?

Postby tarvos » Mon Feb 12, 2018 11:25 am

Lo tiene el coche is a case of inversion where you are stressing the car. It means something like "The CAR'S got it". And the lo is something that has masculine gender.

El coche tiene motor; el motor, lo tiene el coche, no la bici.
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