English: the present perfect "has replaced"

[AvidLearner#]

Is the combination of the present perfect continuous "have been doing" and the simple past "led" correct in my example:

I've been doing some research, and some of my findings led me here. I hope to find things here that will prove my theory.

Thanks in advance.

[golyplot]

Sounds fine to me.

[Le Baron]

Is the combination of the present perfect continuous "have been doing" and the simple past "led" correct in my example:

I've been doing some research, and some of my findings led me here. I hope to find things here that will prove my theory.

Thanks in advance.

Yes it is correct. Depending on exactly what you wanted to say there could also be a case for 'have/has led me'. Though it would probably be nitpicking.

[AvidLearner#]

Peter orders a pizza. After the pizza is delivered, John comes to Peter's house. They go to the living room, sit down and start talking. Then Peter remembers about the pizza and says to John:

1. By the way, John, I ordered some pizza, so If you're hungry, I'll bring you a couple of pieces from the kitchen.

Peter orders a pizza, then John comes to his house. They go to the living room, sit down and start talking. Then Peter remembers that he's waiting for the pizza and says to John:

2. By the way, John, I've ordered some pizza. It will be here in about 10 minutes, so if you're hungry, you'll have some.

Have I used the bolded tenses correctly? If so, I also wonder if it would be correct to say "I've ordered" in version #1 and "I ordered" in version #2. I think that "I ordered" would be correct in version #2 in American English, but that "I've ordered" is incorrect in version #1 because the pizza has already been delivered. Thanks in advance.

[Le Baron]

For general purposes they're interchangeable. However I would choose the same choices for the same sentences. 'I ordered' for the first one because it has happened and the pizza is here. 'I have ordered' for the second because the order has happened, but the entire thing isn't yet finished. Even then if the second sentence had 'I ordered' it really wouldn't matter a great deal.

[AvidLearner#]

For general purposes they're interchangeable. However I would choose the same choices for the same sentences. 'I ordered' for the first one because it has happened and the pizza is here. 'I have ordered' for the second because the order has happened, but the entire thing isn't yet finished. Even then if the second sentence had 'I ordered' it really wouldn't matter a great deal.

Thank you.

[AvidLearner#]

Bob has a sink in his bathroom that needs to be repaired and a hot water valve that needs to be replaced, so John (who's a plumber) comes to Bob's house and starts working on that. After he's finished, he comes up to Bob and says to him:

1. I've repaired the sink for you, but I couldn't replace the hot water valve. I'm going now. It'll be just $200 for the sink.

2. I repaired the sink for you, but I couldn't replace the hot water valve. I'm going now. It'll be just $200 for the sink.

I know that only version #2 would be correct in American English in this context, but I wonder if either would work in British English.

I know that in American English the plumber would say in this context: "I repaired the sink for you. That'll be $200. I'm going now." He would use the simple past "I repaired" because he doesn't expect to do anything else. Consequently, it would be logical for him to use version #2 (which is also in the simple past) if he doesn't expect to do anything else.

On the other hand, in British English the plumber would say "I've repaired the sink for you. That'll be $200. I'm going now." Even though he doesn't expect to do anything else, he would still use the present perfect "I've repaired" to emphasize the present result of his work - the sink is now in the state "repaired."

But I'm not sure how to continue the thought after the conjunction "but" in British English if the plumber doesn't expect to do anything else. For example, if he says: "I've repaired the sink for you, but I haven't been able to replace/can't replace the hot water valve. I'm going now. It'll be just $200 for the sink." It seems wrong to me because "haven't been able to replace" or "can't replace" somehow implies that the plumber still isn't finished even in British English. I want to use the simple past "...but I couldn't replace..." there. But if I use the simple past "...but I couldn't replace...", then I don't see why I can't use "...I repaired..." at the beginning of the sentence as in version #2 in British English, so it seems to me that both #1 and #2 are correct in British English.

Thanks in advance.

[Iversen]

Whar a lousy plumber if he can't replace a defect valve! And what a crook when he takes 200$ to 'repair' a sink (whatever he means by that).

Apart from that I would have expected him to be called in specifically to replace the valve and then fiddling with the sink instead when he uses the simple form ("I repaired the sink" ) - because it wasn't that he was expected to do. The 'British' form "I have repaired the sink" would in my non-native ears imply that he actually did at least one of the things he was asked to do, and now at least that thing has been done.

[Le Baron]

For example, if he says: "I've repaired the sink for you, but I haven't been able to replace/can't replace the hot water valve. I'm going now. It'll be just $200 for the sink." It seems wrong to me because "haven't been able to replace" or "can't replace" somehow implies that the plumber still isn't finished even in British English.

I can't see your reasoning for this. How would it imply that the plumber still isn't finished? 'Can't replace' is final and says it's impossible for him to replace it. It's even more final than 'couldn't' which could easily imply it was not possible at that time, but might be possible on some return visit.

[AvidLearner#]

Thanks for your responses, Iversen and Le Baron.

For example, if he says: "I've repaired the sink for you, but I haven't been able to replace/can't replace the hot water valve. I'm going now. It'll be just $200 for the sink." It seems wrong to me because "haven't been able to replace" or "can't replace" somehow implies that the plumber still isn't finished even in British English.

I can't see your reasoning for this. How would it imply that the plumber still isn't finished? 'Can't replace' is final and says it's impossible for him to replace it. It's even more final than 'couldn't' which could easily imply it was not possible at that time, but might be possible on some return visit.

Bob has a sink in his bathroom that needs to be repaired and a hot water valve that needs to be replaced, so John (who's a plumber) comes to Bob's house and starts working on that. After he's finished, he comes up to Bob and says to him:

1. I repaired the sink for you, but I couldn't replace the hot water valve. I'm going now. It'll be just $200 for the sink.

2. I've repaired the sink for you, but I can't replace the hot water valve. I'm going now. It'll be just $200 for the sink.

Can either version then be used in my context in British English? Thanks in advance.