English: the present perfect "has replaced"

[Le Baron]

Can either version then be used in my context in British English? Thanks in advance.

Yes. The difference is trivial really. I don't see either of them being specifically weighted towards UK or U.S. usage.

[AvidLearner#]

Can either version then be used in my context in British English? Thanks in advance.

Yes. The difference is trivial really. I don't see either of them being specifically weighted towards UK or U.S. usage.

Thanks.

[AvidLearner#]

John and Sarah are hiking somewhere in the forest. John gets his cellphone out of the pocket and sees that there's a message from Peter. He reads the message and puts the phone back in the pocket. Then he says to Sarah: "Peter sent me a message. He's now going to the pub and he wants me to join him."

John sees that he's received a message from Peter. He says to Sarah: "Peter has sent me a message.", then he reads the message and continues: "He's now going to the pub and he wants me to join him."

Have I used the tenses correctly in the examples I made up? If so, I wonder if they would also work the other way round: "has sent" in the first scenario and "sent" in the second. Thanks in advance.