Perhaps not, I just read but not listened: if there is no liaison, mortel can be considered as a subtantive and be at the singular, so perhaps I made an "overcorrection": that happens often in french.tastyonions wrote:Good catch on "mortels!" I did think about it for a second when I went through it, but I believe now that you are right.
Edit: after listening, it's probably mortel at the singular, sorry.