Speakeasy wrote:Please refer to my response to mcthulhu's. My supposition is that language has always been used as a political tool. So, there is no particular reference period.aokoye wrote: ... the time period you referred to ...
You actually did mention a time period (or in the quote, an "era") in your origional post here:
which is what I was referring to. I do, however, agree that there likely has never been a time in which language has been used as a political tool or at the very least as a method of exerting power over another person or group.I do not wish to discuss the geo-political tensions of the era when this course guide was published.
Speakeasy wrote:Rife? Hopefully, the forum members will find a means of discussing this topic without sliding down this decidedly slippery slope ... and it is a slope, not a precipice ... while I do not wish to appear overly critical, I find your own comments unnecessarily alarming, if not provocative. If you choose to see evil, then you will see evil!aokoye wrote: ... I think even answering the question, "why was this included in the language textbook?" is rife for political discussion.
If you're viewing that as alarmist then I think you're reading a bit too far into my comment. Perhaps way too far. Given that you appeared to like Prohairesis' comment I'd also suggest the book Language and Power by Simpson and Mayr.